Hey guys (MORE SPECIFICALLY, I WOULD LIKE A REPLY FROM CANONICAL): I got a very interesting case here for you. If could please give me your thoughts, I would greatly appreciate it. Matt Cutts says that if you link out to the same page (or site?) FROM the same page, the value/PR being passed decreases for each additional link asymptotically. What are your thoughts on this? How much actual reduction do you think occurs per each additional link? Also, more importantly, what if your link structure was more like this: (ALL ON SAME PAGE ON SOME EXTERNAL DOMAIN): - Link 1 -> subdomain1.mysite.com (subdomain 1 being hosted on a DIFFERENT GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION AND IP, LIKE DIFFERENT COUNTRY ALLTOGETHER) -> subdomain1.mysite.com 301-redirects to www.mysite.com/subdomain1/ , which then serves the actual content (and receives the pagerank) - Link 2 -> subdomain1.mysite.com (subdomain 1 being hosted on a DIFFERENT GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION AND IP, LIKE DIFFERENT COUNTRY ALLTOGETHER) -> subdomain1.mysite.com 301-redirects to www.mysite.com/subdomain1/ , which then serves the actual content (and receives the pagerank) - Link 3 -> subdomain1.mysite.com (subdomain 1 being hosted on a DIFFERENT GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION AND IP, LIKE DIFFERENT COUNTRY ALLTOGETHER) -> subdomain1.mysite.com 301-redirects to www.mysite.com/subdomain1/ , which then serves the actual content (and receives the pagerank) In the situation above, Google theoretically shouldn't "reduce the value passed thru each additional link asymptotically", because each link is going to a diff. subdomain, which it considers each a unique domain. But in the end, they do redirect to subfolders on the other same domain. Do you think Google makes the connection in this case and pretty much instantly equates subdomain1.mysite.com / subdomain2.mysite.com / subdomain3.mysite.com to www.mysite.com and therefore treats the passing of the links the same way as if it were just 3 links on the same page pointing www.mysite.com, or is it more likely that you just end up getting way more pagerank passed to www.mysite.com because you've just "washed" the whole situation? You also had posted saying that it's better to build links to subfolders instead of subdomains because they would then inherit/share trust/authority with the parent domain. How does that relate to the above situation? And Canonical: Much respect to you for all of the GOOD, LOGICAL advice that you give people on this forum. I actually went back and most of your posts throughout the history of your posting on this forum - Cash w.mysite.com/subdomain1/ , which then serves the actual content (and receives the pagerank) - Link 3 -> subdomain1.mysite.com (subdomain 1 being hosted on a DIFFERENT GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION AND IP, LIKE DIFFERENT COUNTRY ALLTOGETHER) -> subdomain1.mysite.com 301-redirects to www.mysite.com/subdomain1/ , which then serves the actual content (and receives the pagerank) In the situation above, Google theoretically shouldn't "reduce the value passed thru each additional link asymptotically", because each link is going to a diff. subdomain, which it considers each a unique domain. But in the end, they do redirect to subfolders on the other same domain. Do you think Google makes the connection in this case and pretty much instantly equates subdomain1.mysite.com / subdomain2.mysite.com / subdomain3.mysite.com to www.mysite.com and therefore treats the passing of the links the same way as if it were just 3 links on the same page pointing www.mysite.com, or is it more likely that you just end up getting way more pagerank passed to www.mysite.com because you've just "washed" the whole situation? You also had posted saying that it's better to build links to subfolders instead of subdomains because they would then inherit/share trust/authority with the parent domain. How does that relate to the above situation? Much respect to you for all of the GOOD, LOGICAL advice that you give people on this forum. I actually went back and most of your posts throughout the history of your posting on this forum - Cash