The short answer is no. A trademark gives you rights to mark for a particular type of usage, not exclusive rights to a word(s) or mark. Famous marks and coined terms can have broader protection (i.e. Google, IBM, xerox).
Why would (i.e. Google, IBM, xerox).be able to get the domain name for their Trademarked name and not XYZ inc. for example? Thanks, -C
It's hard to answer this, that is what lawyers are for but "first use in commerce" likely comes into play here as well. Nigel
Plus famous and coined or made-up marks have essentially "planted" themselves into their consumers' minds. Anytime those consumers see anything bearing their trademarks, they'll virtually associate it with their respective sources. Generally it's rather hard (if not impossible) to show trademark infringement or likelihood of confusion occurred if a trademark existed after the domain name-sake was registered.
There is a federal law called the Anticybersquatting Consumer Protection Act, which was passed in November of 1999. (Prior to this there was the Federal Trademark Dilution Act) Basically, it provides grounds to file a law suit against someone for registering, trafficking in, or using a domain name confusingly similar to, or dilutive of, a trademark or personal name. This act made it easier for individuals and companies to take over domain names that are confusingly similar to their names or valid trademarks. Here is an interesting case http://www.techlawjournal.com/courts/avery/19980417.htm The court found the defendant in this case to be a cyber pirate!