FACT: Islam is Semetic , so why do only Jews respond with "anti-semitic" ?

Discussion in 'Politics & Religion' started by swaymedia, Apr 16, 2008.

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  1. #1
    Whether you base Semetism on linguistics, than Islam is becuase its main arabic, just like Judaism is mainly hebrew, Arabic and Hebrew are both Semetic languages.

    If you base it on race, than there are more Muslims in the world who are of Semetic race than there are Jews who are of semetic race. Most Jews nower days over most of the decades have bread into the European gene pool.

    Just becuase Hitler killed Jews, and there right in saying that hitler is Anti-Semetic, but can a Jew say to an Islamic person he or she is anti-semetic, that would be illogical and senseless, and probably just a defense mechanism for arguments for the Crimes of Zionist Israel.
     
    swaymedia, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  2. ForumFocus.net

    ForumFocus.net Banned

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    #2
    Honestly can you stop creating thread after thread saying the same thing over and over again. This is like the 3rd or 4th topic you have to say the exact same thing under a different pretense.
     
    ForumFocus.net, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  3. ziya

    ziya Well-Known Member

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    #3
    Becouse someone write on wiki or similar pages, dictionaries first used by Austrian Jewish scholar Moritz Steinschneider
     
    ziya, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  4. swaymedia

    swaymedia Active Member

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    #4
    exactly ziya, the word was coined earlier, it was right to be used becuase of evil hitler , but zionist now use even AGAINST OTHER SEMETIC PEOPLE just to defend the crimes of israel, by playing into a Victim state, and making others look like there the agressors , WHEN THE WHOLE WORLD CAN SEE ISRAELS AGRESSION
     
    swaymedia, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  5. browntwn

    browntwn Illustrious Member

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    #5
    SEMITIC
    In linguistics and ethnology, Semitic (from the Biblical "Shem", Hebrew: שם, translated as "name", Arabic: ساميّ) was first used to refer to a language family of largely Middle Eastern origin, now called the Semitic languages. This family includes the ancient and modern forms of Akkadian, Amharic, Arabic, Aramaic, Ge'ez, Hebrew, Maltese, Phoenician, Tigre and Tigrinya among others.

    As language studies are interwoven with cultural studies, the term also came to describe the extended cultures and ethnicities, as well as the history of these varied peoples as associated by close geographic and linguistic distribution. The late 19th century term "anti-Semitism" refers specifically to hostility toward Jews, further complicating the understood meaning and boundaries of the term.

    ANTISEMITIC
    Antisemitism (alternatively spelled anti-semitism or anti-Semitism, also known as judeophobia) is prejudice and hostility toward Jews as a religious, racial, or ethnic group. While the term's etymology indicates that antisemitism is directed against all Semitic peoples, since its creation it has been used exclusively to refer to hostility towards Jews.[1][2]

    _____________

    I have already explained the meanings of these words to you but you don't want to acknowledge that the words have defined meanings. Hopefully these definitions will assist you. Or perhaps somebody with more patience for your games will give it a try.

    So yes, in spite of your ignorant assertions otherwise it is possible for a semitic person to be antisemitic no matter how much you want it not to be true.

    But whether you are antisemitic or just anti-jew they are just words. The feelings in your heart are the same.
    _____________

    I guess if you keep posting the same question, I can post the same answer.
     
    browntwn, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  6. swaymedia

    swaymedia Active Member

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    #6
    People who are racist towards Islamic people are also Anti-semetic. Arabic is a Semetic language, and arabs are a semetic race.
     
    swaymedia, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  7. browntwn

    browntwn Illustrious Member

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    #7
    browntwn, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  8. ziya

    ziya Well-Known Member

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    #8
    As you posted semitic family include :his family includes the ancient and modern forms of Akkadian, Amharic, Arabic, Aramaic, Ge'ez, Hebrew, Maltese, Phoenician, Tigre and Tigrinya among others.

    Then why only against Jews , not against Amharic, Tigre or Arabic family ? Is iit because it first time used by a Jews ?
     
    ziya, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  9. browntwn

    browntwn Illustrious Member

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    #9
    Why does the word sandwich not mean hamburger?

    If you seriously want to know, try reading the definitions of the words (I included links). There are various explanations for the definitions and why words mean what they do.
     
    browntwn, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  10. imad

    imad Peon

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    #10
    I do not understand something, from the definition I read, I understood that antisemitism is hate, or discrimination against Jews, whether they are Jews by race or by convert, why they did not simply say anti-jew to prevent any confusion with other semitic people?

    the term first been used in 19th century, at that time didn't they know that there are other semitic people who are not Jews?
     
    imad, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  11. ziya

    ziya Well-Known Member

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    #11
    Playing a game .. games i like it :rolleyes:

    You know what does anti mean, and you know what does semitic mean.. And you have good english, I am sure you can join them and get a result by yourself. Good Luck
     
    ziya, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  12. browntwn

    browntwn Illustrious Member

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    #12
    That is a fair question. Here is what Wiki says, and I am sure you can find similar explanations if you read the source material as well:


    Etymology and usage
    The term Semite refers broadly to speakers of a language group which includes both Arabs and Jews. However, the term antisemitism is specifically used in reference to attitudes held towards Jews. The word antisemitic (antisemitisch in German) was probably first used in 1860 by the Austrian Jewish scholar Moritz Steinschneider in the phrase "antisemitic prejudices" (German: "antisemitische Vorurteile").[7] Steinschneider used this phrase to characterize Ernest Renan's ideas about how "Semitic races" were inferior to "Aryan races." These pseudo-scientific theories concerning race, civilization, and "progress" had become quite widespread in Europe in the second half of the 19th century, especially as Prussian nationalistic historian Heinrich von Treitschke did much to promote this form of racism. In Treitschke's writings Semitic was synonymous with Jewish, in contrast to its usage by Renan and others.

    In 1879 German political agitator Wilhelm Marr used the phrase Judenhass (hatred of Jews) in his book "The Victory of Judaism over Germanicism. Observed from a non-religious perspective." ("Der Sieg des Judenthums über das Germanenthum. Vom nicht confessionellen Standpunkt aus betrachtet.") to make hatred of the Jews seem rational and sanctioned by scientific knowledge.[8] In his next book, "The Way to Victory of Germanicism over Judaism", published in 1880, Marr developed his ideas further and coined the related German word Antisemitismus - antisemitism.

    The book became very popular, and in the same year he founded the "League of Antisemites" ("Antisemiten-Liga"), the first German organization committed specifically to combatting the alleged threat to Germany posed by the Jews, and advocating their forced removal from the country.

    So far as can be ascertained, the word was first widely printed in 1881, when Marr published "Zwanglose Antisemitische Hefte," and Wilhelm Scherer used the term "Antisemiten" in the January issue of "Neue Freie Presse". The related word semitism was coined around 1885. See also the coinage of the term "Palestinian" by Germans to refer to ethnic Jews, as distinct from the religion of Judaism.

    Despite the use of the prefix "anti," the terms Semitic and anti-Semitic are not directly opposed to each other (unlike similar-seeming terms such as anti-American or anti-Hellenic). To avoid the confusion of the misnomer, many scholars on the subject (such as Emil Fackenheim) now favor the unhyphenated antisemitism[9] in order to emphasize that the word should be read as a single unified term, not as a meaningful root word-prefix combination.

    The term antisemitism has historically referred to prejudice against Jews alone, and this was the only use of the word for more than a century. It does not traditionally refer to prejudice against other people who speak Semitic languages (e.g. Arabs or Assyrians). Bernard Lewis, Professor of Near Eastern Studies Emeritus at Princeton University, says that "Antisemitism has never anywhere been concerned with anyone but Jews."[1] Yehuda Bauer also articulated this view in his writings and lectures: (the term) "Antisemitism, especially in its hyphenated spelling, is inane nonsense, because there is no Semitism that you can be anti to."[10][11] A similar point is made by Professor Shmuel Almog, of the Institute of Contemporary Jewry at the Hebrew University of Jerusalem, who writes "So the hyphen, or rather its omission, conveys a message; if you hyphenate your 'anti-Semitism', you attach some credence to the very foundation on which the whole thing rests."[12]

    In recent decades some groups have argued that the term should be extended to include prejudice against Arabs or Anti-Arabism[citation needed], in the context of answering accusations of Arab antisemitism; further, some, including the Islamic Association of Palestine, have argued that this implies that Arabs cannot, by definition, be antisemitic.[citation needed] The argument runs that since the Semitic language family includes Arabic, Hebrew and Aramaic languages and the historical term "Semite" refers to all those who consider themselves descendants of the Biblical Shem, "anti-Semitism" should be likewise inclusive. However, this usage is not generally accepted.
     
    browntwn, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  13. GTech

    GTech Rob Jones for President!

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    #13
    Seems like those crying the loudest are trying the hardest to cover something up.
     
    GTech, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  14. ForumFocus.net

    ForumFocus.net Banned

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    #14
    A word with 2 meanings realy. Yes there is a language aspect to semetic. But the phrases anti semetic refers to Jews. Do not try to make stuff up by hiding behind a different meaning to a word.
     
    ForumFocus.net, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  15. browntwn

    browntwn Illustrious Member

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    #15
    Swaymedia is a jew hating antisemite by any definition.

    As Shakespeare said:
    A rose by any other name would smell as sweet
     
    browntwn, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  16. ForumFocus.net

    ForumFocus.net Banned

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    #16
    You just nailed that to the cross. You could not be more right then that.
     
    ForumFocus.net, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  17. swaymedia

    swaymedia Active Member

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    #17
    BrownTwn is a islamic hating racist and an anti-semite (note: how american media has made it ok to be 'racist' to muslims yet not jews) .. makes you wonder who then has more power in the media?
     
    swaymedia, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  18. Ckrismoney

    Ckrismoney Well-Known Member

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    #18
    islam has made it okay to be racist by just letting my black brothers and sisters free from slavery in the 1950s and they still treat us blacks there bad.

    they still have slaves to this day in Sudan by arab influence.

    what are you trying to do make islam seem like the nice religion.

    islam is anti everything.
     
    Ckrismoney, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  19. iWrite

    iWrite Peon

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    #19
    Islam is not anti everything. When will you people grow up? Islam, Judaism, and Christianity are all almost the same, with a few differences. Anyway, you can't be bloody racist against a religion or culture. It's literally impossible. You can be prejudiced, yes, but not racist. If you are going to spam this stuff non stop, please at least use the proper terms.
     
    iWrite, Apr 16, 2008 IP
  20. Ckrismoney

    Ckrismoney Well-Known Member

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    #20
    The quran says slay anyone who deos not believe in islam.

    That's anti everything!

    Islam totally distroyed our African way of life in northern Africa.

    Here is some good info

    A Disturbing Question Concerning Muslim HISTORY

    As an African I am also very puzzled at the lack of balanced historical research by Muslims concerning the African people.
    In North Africa we know that the whole Saharan region of Morocco, Libya, Algeria and Egypt to the Sudan and Ethiopia used to be Christian, before Islam came and destroyed the local churches. Why do we not hear about it in Muslim literature?

    And consider this: Africa produced great thinkers like Augustine of Hippo (Algeria), Clement and Athanasius of Egypt, and Tertullian of Carthage (Tunis), while Ethiopia had the first African church totally independent of Europe (Acts 8). In fact, I find it most interesting that an African church was planted first before there was ever a church in Britain, Canada, the USA or Spain, or any other European state. So why do we not hear of this African church, and why do we not continue to see any remnants of it today?

    Perhaps we need to go to the Qur'an again to find the clue. Consider this verse in Sura Tauba, 9:5:


    "Fight and slay [those who associate another with God (Shirk)], and seize them, beleaguer them, and lie in wait for them in every stratagem of war."
    It fits the pattern of Islam which fights against all those who choose to follow their own beliefs, an idea we find well expressed in Sura Imran, 3:28:



    Let not the believers take disbelievers [Christians and Jews] for their friends in preference to believers. Whoso doeth that hath no connection with Allah unless (it be) that ye but guard yourselves against them, taking (as it were) security. Allah biddeth you beware (only) of Himself.
    The history of the Sudan is a case in point. Before the Muslim invasion of 1275 A.D. by the Islamic Mamluks of Egypt, the Sudan had three mini-Christian states called:


    NOBATIA in the north, the capital of Qustul,
    MAKURIA, the capital of old Dongola, and
    ALODIA or ALWA, the capital of Soba.
    These three Christian countries, from 300 A.D. to 1500 A.D. had their own written language, great centers of learning, international commerce with Egypt, Ethiopia and other Middle East states, and sent out missionaries to other African states (see K. Milhalowski,Faras, vol.2, Poland, 1965 for extensive archaeological and historical documentation on these states).

    Even the Arab, ibn Selim al-Assuani, was impressed when he saw Soba, describing it as having, ...fine buildings, roomy houses, churches, and the land is more fruitful than Makuria...[and it has] much meat, and good horses.

    But all this was destroyed by Muslim invaders in 1275 A.D., not European colonialists! The same type of massive destruction happened all over Africa, yet we never hear anyone holding the Muslims responsible! Why? Arab Muslim racism is just as obnoxious as that of the Europeans, so why is it allowed to continue?

    Read more...
     
    Ckrismoney, Apr 16, 2008 IP
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